STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION WITH ANSWER

Question # 1. The client with AIDS tells the nurse that he has been using acupuncture to help with his pain. The nurse should question the client regarding this treatment because acupuncture:

A. Uses pressure from the fingers and hands to stimulate the energy points in the body
B. Uses oils extracted from plants and herbs
C. Uses needles to stimulate certain points on the body to treat pain
D. Uses manipulation of the skeletal muscles to relieve stress and pain

Answer D is correct. Acupuncture uses needles, and because HIV is transmitted by blood and body fluids, the nurse should question this treatment. Answer A describes acupressure, and answers B and C describe massage therapy with the use of oils.

Question # 2. The 10-year-old is being treated for asthma. Before administering Theodur, the nurse should check the:
A. Urinary output
B. Blood pressure
C. Pulse
D. Temperature

Answer C is correct. Theodur is a bronchodilator, and a side effect of bronchodilators is tachycardia, so checking the pulse is important. Extreme tachycardia should be reported to the doctor. Answers A, B, and D are not necessary.

Question # 3. The nurse witnesses the nursing assistant hitting the client in the long-term care facility. The nursing assistant can be charged with:
A. Assault
B. Tort
C. Negligence
D. Malpractice

Answer A is correct. Assault is defined as striking or touching the client inappropriately, so a nurse assistant striking a client could be charged with assault. Answer A, negligence, is failing to perform care for the client. Answer B, a tort, is a wrongful act committed on the client or their belongings. Answer D, malpractice, is failure to perform an act that the nursing assistant knows should be done, or the act of doing something wrong that results in harm to the client.

Question # 4. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150ccs drainage
B. A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
C. A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102°F
D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck’s traction

Answer A is correct. The first client to be seen is the one who recently returned from surgery. The other clients in answers B, C, and D are more stable and can be seen later.

Question # 5. A client with glomerulonephritis is placed on a low-sodium diet. Which of the following snacks is suitable for the client with sodium restriction?
A. Peanut butter cookies
B. Fresh peach
C. Cottage cheese and fruit
D. Grilled cheese sandwich

Answer B is correct. The fresh peach is the lowest in sodium of these choices.
Answers A, C, and D have much higher amounts of sodium.

More Nursing Exam Questions with Answer

MOH EXAM QUESTIONS MAY 2017

1. Ms. Deepa Joseph suddenly develops a decrease in her level of consciousness, even though she has not received any additional sedatives or analgesics. She is on broad spectrum antibiotics, levophed, vasopressin, steroids and intensive insulin. She is being fed via a nasal gastric feeding tube. She develops gastric distention with residual volumes equal to 6 hours feeding volume. Which one of the
following interventions is a priority?
a. Change feeding tube to small bowel placement
b. Obtain a blood glucose measurement
c. Initiate a prokinetic agent
d. Change feeds to elemental solution
2. Which one of the following pharmacological agents should be administered with levothyroxine for the treatment of myxedema coma?
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Epinephrine
d. Steroids

3. Manjusha is admitted following a motor vehicle collision. Her past medical history includes daily
prednisone for the treatment of systemic lupus. Despite fluid replacement therapy and initiation of
levophed, her blood pressure remains low. Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Cosyntropinin
b. Epinephrine
c. Hydrocortisone
d. Vasopressin

4. After successful completion of a spontaneous breathing trial, extubation is considered. Which one of
the following findings would be a contraindication to extubation?
a. FiO2 0.4
b. PEEP 5
c. GCS 4
d. Minute volume 10 L/min

5. Mr. Geetha Joh underwent coronary bypass surgery. Four hours following admission to the critical careunit, his BP begins to fall, his HR rises to 130 and his urine output decreases to 35 ml/hr. His CVP
increases to 22 and his PWP 18. The critical care nurse notifies the cardiovascular surgeon. Pending
the surgeons arrival, which intervention is the priority?
a. Milrinone
b. Dobutamine
c. Lasix
d. Fluid

6. Following an inferior wall infarction, Mrs. Shoba Banner develops a sinus rhythm with Wenkebach
phenomena. She develops episodes of symptomatic bradycardia. Which one of the following
interventions would be the priority?
a. Epinephrine
b. Cardioversion
c. Atropine
d. Dopamine

7. Mr. Lio George has been on home ventilation for several years with severe COPD. He was admitted for exacerbation of COPD due to pneumonia. At home, he varies his support between Pressure Control
ventilation and spontaneous breathing. His pneumonia has now resolved and the plan is to return
him to his baseline ventilation. He calls you to his bedside and asks you what his ventilator is set to
because he feels short of breath. You tell him he is on Pressure Support, and he becomes very
angry. He tells you that he told the respiratory therapist that he has tried Pressure Support in the past
and he does not like it. When you speak to the respiratory therapist, she had placed the patient on PS
to see if he noticed the difference. Which one of the following is an appropriate response?
a. Encourage Mr. Lio George to stay on the Pressure Support and give it a chance to work
b. Have the respiratory therapists speak to Mr. Lio George to explain her interventions
c. Facilitate a meeting between you, the respiratory therapist and Mr. Lio George to develop a plan for weaning
d. Tell Mr. Lio George that his lungs have changed and the previous mode might not work the same way

8. Mr. Anup Unnikrishnan is admitted with hypoxemic and hypercarbic respiratory arrest requiring intubation and ventilation. He has a RLL consolidation on xray, with copious purulent secretions. WBC is 24,000 T 39.4. BP 88/56 HR 136 and CVP 18 after 6 L of 0.9% normal saline. Urine output is 10 ml/hr. Which
one of the following interventions is a priority?
a. Levophed
b. Dopamine
c. Dobutamine
d. Labetolol

9. Mr. Padmanabha Ayyangar is admitted with alcoholic pancreatitis. He has a T 38.2 WBC 14,000 (with left shift and increased neutrophils). Following 4 litres of normal saline, his BP increases to 114/80 from 70/50, HR decreases from 144 to 92 and urine output increases from 10 to 60 ml/hr. He requires intubation for worsening hypoxemia. Which one of the following best explains these findings?
a. Sepsis
b. Severe sepsis
c. Septic shock
d. Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome

10. Mrs. Sanjana Gandhi is a Type II diabetic with a history of TIA and congestive heart failure. She is admitted to the critical care unit for monitoring following a Hartmann’s procedure for colon cancer. Two hours post operatively, she develops new onset uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with hypotension. Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Lidocaine
b. Amiodarone
c. Coumadin
d. IV heparin

NURSING TUTOR RECRUITMENT EXAM QUESTION PAPER

NURSING EXAM QUESTION PAPER

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STAFF NURSE EXAM OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION ANSWERS

Question #1:-Major protein digesting enzyme present in the pancreatic juice
 A:-trypsin
 B:-aminopeptidase
 C:-pepsin
 D:-dipeptidase
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question #2:-The normal left arterial pressure is
 A:-8 mmHg
 B:-15 mmHg
 C:-25 mmHg
 D:-32 mmHg
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #3:-The type of shock occurs in the acute stage of burns is
 A:-Anaphylactic shock
 B:-Septic shock
 C:-Distributive shock
 D:-Hypovolemic shock
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question #4:-An early manifestation of laryngeal cancer is
 A:-Stomatitis
 B:-Airway obstruction

MULTIPLE CHOICE NURSING QUESTION ANSWERS

Question #1:-Which of the following condition has an increased risk for developing Hyperkalemia?
 A:-Crohn's disease
 B:-Cushing's disease
 C:-Chronic heart failure
 D:-End-stage renal disease
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question #2:-The percentage of contribution of CFCs in total global warming is
 A:-6%
 B:-14%
 C:-60%
 D:-20%
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #3:-Which of the following is not an indication for the use of Beta Blockers ? A:-Variant angina
 B:-Migraine prophylaxis
 C:-Hypertension
 D:-Glaucoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #4:-Human placenta is
 A:-Haemoendothelial
 B:-Haemochorial
 C:-Endothelioendothelial
 D:-Endotheliochorial
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #5:-Expansion of PPE
 A:-Patient Protective Environment
 B:-Personal Protective Equipment
 C:-Personal Protective Environment

STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS

Question #1:-Jaipur foot has an advantage over conventional prosthetic feet because
 A:-Separate Male and Female feet are available
 B:-Same foot can be used lifelong (Durable)
 C:-It can be used without a footwear (Bare foot walking possible)
 D:-It matches any skin colour
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question #2:-Shick test is done in
 A:-meningitis
 B:-diphtheria
 C:-pertussis
 D:-poliomyelitis
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #3:-Most commonly used laboratory technique used to identify tubercle bacilli in sputum
 A:-Acid-fast staining
 B:-Sensitivity testing
 C:-Agglutination testing
 D:-Dark-field illumination
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #4:-Isotonic solution
 A:-0.9%Sodium Chloride
 B:-0.45% Sodium Chloride
 C:-10 %Dextrose
 D:-25% Dextrose
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #5:-The antidote of paracetamol is
 A:-Cyclosporin
 B:-N-acetylcysteine
 C:-Cyclophosphamide
 D:-Diclofenac
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #6:-Cretinism is caused by the congenital deficiency of
 A:-Thyroid hormone
 B:-Parathormone
 C:-Antidiuretic hormone
 D:-Adrenaline
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #7:-Which lab test is to be monitored while the client is on treatment with aminoglycocides?
 A:-Haemoglobin
 B:-S. bilirubin
 C:-S. creatinine
 D:-Platelets
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question  #8:-The position contraindicated for a child after cleft lip surgery is
 A:-Supine position
 B:-Prone position
 C:-Right lateral position
 D:-Left lateral position
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question  #9. Which of the following classes of medications maximizes cardiac performance in clients with heat failure by increasing ventricular contractility?
a. Beta-adrenergic blockers
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Diuretics
d. Inotropic agents

 Correct Answer:-Option-D

Question #10:-Synchronizer switch is in off position in
 A:-Cardioversion
 B:-Pacing
 C:-Defibrillation
 D:-Intubation
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS

Question #1:-Major protein digesting enzyme present in the pancreatic juice
 A:-trypsin
 B:-aminopeptidase
 C:-pepsin
 D:-dipeptidase
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #2:-Isotonic solution
 A:-0.9%Sodium Chloride
 B:-0.45% Sodium Chloride
 C:-10 %Dextrose
 D:-25% Dextrose
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #3:-Pulse Apex deficit is seen in
 A:-Aortic stenosis
 B:-Atrial fibrillation
 C:-Cardiac failure
 D:-Mitral stenosis
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #4:-Which of the following drug is not used in the management of hyperkaleamia?
 A:-Calcium gluconate
 B:-Salbutamol
 C:-Sodium bicarbonate
 D:-Atropine sulphate
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question #5:-A condition of generalised ill health and malnutrition marked by weakness and emaciation
 A:-Anorexia
 B:-Cachexia
 C:-Obesity
 D:-Bulimia
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #6:-Malignant tumour of the connective tissue is
 A:-Sarcoma
 B:-Carcinoma
 C:-Osteoma
 D:-Melanoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question  #7:-The position contraindicated for a child after cleft lip surgery is
 A:-Supine position
 B:-Prone position
 C:-Right lateral position
 D:-Left lateral position
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #8:-Shick test is done in
 A:-meningitis
 B:-diphtheria
 C:-pertussis
 D:-poliomyelitis
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question  #9:-Who coined the term 'Schizophrenia'?
 A:-Kraepelin
 B:-Sander
 C:-Bleuler
 D:-Mayer Gross
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question #10:-A liquid drop is spherical in shape due to
 A:-Viscosity
 B:-Capillarity
 C:-Buoyancy
 D:-Surface Tension
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

STAFF NURSE EXAM OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION ANSWERS

Question 1:-Heamoglobin is a coordination compound in which the central metal atom is
 A:-Sodium
 B:-Iron
 C:-Manganese
 D:-Magnesium
 Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question 2:-Anterior interosseous nerve supplies
 A:-Flexor pollicis longus
 B:-Abductor pollicis longus
 C:-Flexor pollicis brevis
 D:-Flexor carpi radialis
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 3:-A condition characterized by a prolonged PR interval more than 0.2 secs in ECG is called
 A:-Second degree AV block
 B:-Mobiz type II AV block
 C:-First degree AV block
 D:-Complete block
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question 4:-Vitamin A is mostly stored in which type of cells in the liver
 A:-Hepatocyte
 B:-Stellate/Ito cells
 C:-Kupffer cells
 D:-All the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question 5:-Which of the following anti-tuberculosis drug can damage the 8th cranial nerve?
 A:-Streptomycin
 B:-Paraoamino Salicylic Acid (PAS)
 C:-Ethambutol hydrochloride (myambutol)
 D:-Isoniazid
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 6:-Earliest symptom of carcinoma vocal cord is
 A:-Hoarseness
 B:-Stridor
 C:-Pain
 D:-Dysphagia
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 7:-Culture media sterilised by
 A:-Autoclave
 B:-Hot air oven
 C:-Ethylene oxide
 D:-Gluteraldehyde
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question 8:-Korsakoff's psychosis is due to intake of
 A:-Cannabis
 B:-Opium
 C:-Amphetamine
 D:-Alcohol
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question 9 :-Which of the following is not a use of dexamethasone ?
 A:-Nephrotic syndrome
 B:-Addison's disease
 C:-Cushing's disease
 D:-Hodgkin's lymphoma
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question 10:-Condition associated with autoimmune hepatitis
 A:-Lymphadenopathy
 B:-Ulcerative colitis
 C:-Urticaria
 D:-All of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS

Question # 1:-Peptic ulcer of the esophagus is also called as
 A:-Barrett's ulcer
 B:-Reiter's syndrome
 C:-Reflux esophagitis
 D:-Achalasis
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question# 2:-Drug used to treat H1N1 infection
 A:-Imatinib
 B:-Natalizumab
 C:-Omalizumab
 D:-Oseltamivir
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question # 3:-Convert `104 Degree F` to celsius
 A:- `C = 37 Degree C `
 B:-`C = 38  Degree C`
 C:-`C = 40  Degree C`
 D:-`C = 48 Degree C`
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question #4:-Intra-aortic balloon pump therapy is most often used in the management of
 A:-Congestive cardiac failure
 B:-Cardiogenic shock
 C:-Pulmonary edema
 D:-Aortic insufficiency
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question#5:-A 40 year old female patient presents in the casualty department with history of acute onset of severe epigastric pain radiating towards the back. The patient has no significant medical history and previous surgery. On examination, the patient has marked epigastric tenderness with guarding and diminished bowel sounds. The patients' amylase level is 2500 units. What is the most likely cause of this patients pain ?
 A:-Peptic ulcer disease
 B:-Gall stone
 C:-Alcohol abuse
 D:-Intestinal colic
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #6:-The positive diagnosis for HIV infection is made based on
 A:-A history of high risk sexual behaviors
 B:-Positive ELISA and Western blot tests
 C:-Identification of an associated opportunistic infection
 D:-Evidence of extreme weight loss and high fever
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #7:-The water testing apparatus used to find out the quantity of chlorine required to disinfect
100 gallons (455 litres) of water.
 A:-Horrock's Apparatus
 B:-Berkefeld Apparatus
 C:-Chloranome
 D:-Hydrometer
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #8:-Spina ventosa
 A:-Tuberculous dactilitis
 B:-Tuberculous infection of ventricles of brain
 C:-Fungal affection of spinal cord
 D:-Crystal deposition disorder in spine
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #9:-Hormone responsible for ovulation and development of corpus luteum is
 A:-FSH
 B:-LH
 C:-ADH
 D:-ICSH
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #10-Chylomicrons are synthesized by
 A:-Small intestine
 B:-Large intestine
 C:-Liver
 D:-All the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

STAFF NURSE EXAM OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION ANSWERS

Question #1:-Bicuspid valve is present between
 A:-Left atrium and left ventricle
 B:-Right atrium and right ventricle
 C:-Left atrium and right atrium
 D:-Right ventricle and left ventricle
 Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question #2:-Enrichment medium for vibrio cholerae
 A:-Alkaline Peptone Water
 B:-Cary Blair Medium
 C:-Selenite Fbroth
 D:-Stuart's medium
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #3:-Koplik's spots are seen in
 A:-Rubella
 B:-Rubeola
 C:-Typhoid
 D:-Chickenpox
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #4:-Which of the following tissue is most sensitive to blockade by Atropine ?
 A:-Gastric glands
 B:-Salivary glands
 C:-Circular muscle of iris
 D:-Urinary bladder
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #5:-Chromosomal translocation in acute myeloid leukemia (AML-M3)
 A:-1-19
 B:-8-21
 C:-15-17
 D:-14-18
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question #6:-Oxidation pond is a method used for
 A:-Solid waste disposal
 B:-Sewage treatment
 C:-Water purification
 D:-Sullage disposal
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #7:-The recommended maximum noise level is
 A:-75 decibels
 B:-85 decibels
 C:-130 decibels
 D:-140 decibels
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question #8:-Christmas tree stains are used in the detection of
 A:-Vaginal epithelial cells
 B:-Chorionic villi
 C:-Red blood cells
 D:-Spermatozoa
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question #9:-The lower end of spinal cord in a neonate end s at the level of
 A:-S3 vertebra
 B:-S1 vertebra
 C:-L2 vertebra
 D:-L3 vertebra
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question #10:-An early sign of Hodgkin' disease is
 A:-Difficulty in breathing
 B:-Swollen cervical lymph nodes
 C:-Difficulty in swallowing
 D:-Feeling of fullness over the liver
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

NCLEX QUESTION ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE

Question #1. The nurse has just received shift report and is preparing to make rounds. Which client should be seen first?
A. The client who has a history of a cerebral aneurysm with an oxygen saturation rate of 99%
B. The client who was admitted 1 hour ago with shortness of breath
C. The client who is three days post–coronary artery bypass graft with a temperature of 100.2°F
D. The client who is being prepared for discharge following a femoral popliteal bypass graft

Answer B is correct. The client admitted 1 hour ago with shortness of breath should be seen first because this client might require oxygen therapy. The client in answer A with a low-grade temperature can be assessed after the client with shortness of breath. The client in answer C can also be seen later. This client will have some

Question #2. The client has an order for heparin to prevent post-surgical thrombi.
Immediately following a heparin injection, the nurse should:
A. Aspirate for blood
B. Check the pulse rate
C. Massage the site
D. Check the site for bleeding

Answer D is correct. After administering any subcutaneous anticoagulant, the nurse should check the site for bleeding. Answers A and C are incorrect because aspirating and massaging the site are not done. Checking the pulse is not necessary, as in answer B.

Question #3. The nurse is assisting in the care of a patient with diverticulosis. Which of the following assessment findings would necessitate a report to the doctor?
A. Bowel sounds of 5–20 seconds
B. Intermittent left lower-quadrant pain
C. Constipation alternating with diarrhea
D. Hemoglobin 26% and hematocrit 32

Answer D is correct. Low hemoglobin and hematocrit might indicate intestinal bleeding. Answers A, B, and C are normal lab values.

Question #4. The nurse is assessing the abdomen. The nurse knows the best sequence to perform the assessment is:
A. Palpation, inspection, auscultation
B. Auscultation, palpation, inspection
C. Inspection, auscultation, palpation
D. Inspection, palpation, auscultation

Answer C is correct. The nurse should inspect first, then auscultate, and finally palpate. If the nurse palpates first the assessment might be unreliable. Therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.

Question #5. The nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the nursing assistant?
A. The 18-year-old with a fracture to two cervical vertebrae
B. The infant with meningitis
C. The elderly client with a thyroidectomy 4 days ago
D. The client with a thoracotomy 2 days ago

Answer C is correct. The most stable client is the client with the thyroidectomy 4 days ago. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because the other clients are less stable and require a registered nurse.

Question #6. The client is admitted to the postpartum unit with an order to continue the infusion of Pitocin. Which finding indicates that the Pitocin is having the desired effect?
A. The fundus is deviated to the left.
B. The fundus is firm and in the midline.
C. The fundus is boggy.
D. The fundus is two finger breadths below the umbilicus.

Answer B is correct. Pitocin is used to cause the uterus to contract and decrease
bleeding. A uterus deviated to the left, as stated in answer A, indicates a full bladder. It is not desirable to have a boggy uterus, making answer C incorrect. This lack of muscle tone will increase bleeding. Answer D is incorrect because the position of the uterus is not related to the use of Pitocin.

Question #7. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?
A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.

Answer A is correct. The client with unilateral neglect will neglect one side of the body. Answers B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect.

Question #8. The nurse is assigned to care for an infant with physiologic jaundice. Which action by the nurse would facilitate elimination of the bilirubin?
A. Decreasing caloric intake
B. Maintaining the infant’s body temperature at 98.6°F
C. Minimizing tactile stimulation
D. Increasing the infant’s fluid intake

Answer D is correct. Bilirubin is excreted through the kidneys, thus the need for increased fluids. Maintaining the body temperature is important but will not assist in eliminating bilirubin; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Answers A and C are incorrect because they do not relate to the question.

Question #9. A 24-year-old female client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the nurse?
A. Taking the vital signs
B. Obtaining the permit
C. Explaining the procedure
D. Checking the lab work

Answer A is correct. The primary responsibility of the nurse is to take the vital signs before any surgery. The actions in answers B, C, and D are the responsibility of the doctor and, therefore, are incorrect for this question.

Question #10. The doctor orders 2% nitroglycerin ointment in a 1-inch dose every 12 hours. Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes:
A. Rotating application sites
B. Limiting applications to the chest
C. Rubbing it into the skin
D. Covering it with a gauze dressing

Answer A is correct. Sites for the application of nitroglycerin should be rotated, to prevent skin irritation. It can be applied to the back and upper arms, not to the lower extremities, making answer B incorrect. Answer C is contraindicated to the question, and answer D is incorrect because the medication should be covered with a prepared dressing made of a thin paper substance, not gauze.

TPSC STAFF NURSE EXAM QUESTION ANSWERS

Question #1:-The stain using to visnalise separated DNA by gel electrophoresis is
 A:-Ethidium bromide
 B:-Haematoxylin
 C:-Acetocarmin
 D:-Feulgen dye
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #2:-All of the following are characteristics of teratomas except
 A:-A malignant component should be present
 B:-They arise from totipotential germ cells
 C:-They can arise in the ovary
 D:-Tissues resembling those from an embryo can be seen
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #3:-The most common content of hernia-en glissade
 A:-Sigmoid colon
 B:-Omentum
 C:-Caecum
 D:-Urinary bladder
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #4:-Dagger sign in X-ray is seen in
 A:-Rheumatoid arthritis
 B:-Flurosis
 C:-Ankylosing spondylitis
 D:-Metaphyseal dysplasia
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question #5:-Which microorganism is associated with cervical cancer?
 A:-Human papilloma virus
 B:-Cytomegalovirus
 C:-Mycobacterium avium
 D:-Pneumocystis carinii
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question #6:-Fibres carried by greater splanchnic nerve
 A:-Preganglionic sympathetic
 B:-Postganglionic sympathetic
 C:-Preganglionic parasympathetic
 D:-Postganglionic parasympathetic
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #7:-Neural tube defects can be prevented by
 A:-Supplementation with Vitamin B complex
 B:-Supplementation with hydantoin
 C:-Maternal folate supplementation
 D:-Prophylaxis with valproic acid
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question #8:-What is the commonest cause for neonatal mortality in India ?
 A:-Congenitial anomalies
 B:-Birth asphyxia
 C:-Sepsis
 D:-Prematurity
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question #9:-The intravenous anaesthetic agent used for treating clinical depression is
 A:-Ketamine
 B:-Propofol
 C:-Thiopentone sodium
 D:-Diazepam
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question #10:- Contraindications for using oral contraceptives
 A:-Thrombophlebitis
 B:-Urinary tract infections
 C:-Ulcerative colitis
 D:-Menorrhagia
 Correct Answer:- Option-A