Question No. 1:-Regular rhythmic uterine contraction elicited during bimanual examination is
 A:-Piskacak's sign
 B:-Jacqmer's sign
 C:-Heger's sign
 D:-Palmer's sign
Answer:- Option-D
Question No. 2. All are correctly matched except
a. decreased fibrinogen – cryoprecipate
b. increased INR – FFP
c. decreased hemoglobin – packed cells
d. increased APTT – platelets

Question No. 3:-The connecting link between glycolysis and kreb's cycle in aerobic respiration is
 B:-Acetyl COA
 C:-Citric acid
 D:-Oxalo acetic acid
Answer:- Option-B

Question No. 4:-The life span of a sperm is
 A:-12 to 24 hours
 B:-48 to 72 hours
 C:-0 to 12 hours


Q. No. 1. After a thoracentesis, observe the client for
 A:-periods of confusion
 B:-expectoration of blood
 C:-increased breath sounds
 D:-decreased respiratory rate
Answer:-  B:-expectoration of blood

Q. No. 2. Compression - Ventilation ratio during CPR on an adult victim is
A. 5:1
B. 15:2
C. 30:1
D. 30:2

Answer:- D. 30:2
Q. No. 3. Which sensation does not reach the thalamic nuclei before it is relayed to cerebral cortex ?
 Correct Answer:- D:-Smell

Q. No. 4. Increasing end tidal carbon dioxide concentration seen in capnography during anaesthesia can be due to
 B:-Exhausted sodalime
 C:-Pulmonary embolism
 D:-Hyper pyrexia
Answer:- C:-Pulmonary embolism

Q. No. 5. Digitalis toxicity is indicated by
 A:-Visual disturbance such as seeing yellow spots
 B:-Elevated blood pressure
 C:-Skin rash over the chest and back
 D:-Increased appetite
 Correct Answer:-  A:-Visual disturbance such as seeing yellow spots

Q. No. 6. The volume of amniotic fluid at term is
 A:-100 to 200 ml
 B:-300 to 500 ml
 C:-50 to 100 ml
 D:-600 to 800 ml
Answer:-  D:-600 to 800 ml

Q. No. 7.Thought broadcast is commonly seen in
 A:-Bipolar mood disorder
 C:-Anxiety disorder
Answer:-  B:-Schizophrenia

Q. No. 8. Which of the following vaccination is recently recommended for adolescent girls?
 A:-Tetanus toxoid
 B:-Rubella vaccine
 C:-Penta vaccine
 D:-Typhoid vaccine
Answer:-  B:-Rubella vaccine

Q. No. 9. Which of the following reaction will not result in the formation of C-C bond?
 A:-Cannizaro reaction
 B:-Friedel-Craft's reaction
 C:-Wurtz reaction
 D:-Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Answer:-  A:-Cannizaro reaction

Q. No. 10. A semiconductor diode is used to
 A:-convert dc to ac
 B:-decrease voltage
 C:-increase voltage
 D:-convert ac to dc
Answer:- D:-convert ac to dc



Question #1:-Which of the following drug is not used in the management of hyperkaleamia?
 A:-Calcium gluconate
 B:-Atropine sulphate
 C:-Sodium bicarbonate
Answer:-  B:-Atropine sulphate

Question #2:-A post thyroidectomy patient in the post operative ward complaints of difficulty in breathing. On examination he had stridor and markedly swollen, tense neck. Which one is the first step in the management of this patient ?
 A:-Intubate with endotracheal tube
 B:-Perform tracheostomy
 C:-Open the wound to evacuate the haematoma
 D:-Control the bleeding site in the operating room

Answer:-  C:-Open the wound to evacuate the haematoma

Question # 3:-Order of hand washing is
 A:-back of hand, wrist, palm
 B:-wrist, palm, back of hand
 C:-palm, wrist, back of hand
 D:-palm, back of hand, wrist
Answer:-  D:-palm, back of hand, wrist

Question # 4. Treatment of Narrow Complex Tachycardia in haemodynamically unstable patient is
a. Defibrillation
b. Cardioversion
c. Amidarone
d. Ditiazem


Question # 5:-A person having Klinfelter's syndrome is characterized by
 A:-Having both male and female sex organs
 B:-Female with some sexual characters of male
 C:-Male with some secondary sexual characters of female
 D:-Female internal sex organs and male external sex organs
Answer:-  C:-Male with some secondary sexual characters of female

Question # 6. One ampule of Adrenaline contains
a. 1mg
b. 0.1 mg
c. 100mcg
d. 10mg

Answer:- a. 1mg

Question # 7:-Contact precautions are used in caring a patient with

Answer:-  B:-MRSA

Question # 8:-Location and secretion of Leydig cells are

Answer:-  C:-Testis-testosterone

Question # 9:-Pulse Apex deficit is seen in
 A:-Aortic stenosis
 B:-Cardiac failure
 C:-Atrial fibrillation
 D:-Mitral stenosis

Answer:-  C:-Atrial fibrillation

Question # 10:-The most lethal arrhythmia is
 A:-Supra ventricular tachycardia
 B:-Atrial tachycardia
 C:-Sinus arrhythmia
 D:-Ventricular fibrillation

Answer:-  D:-Ventricular fibrillation


Question No. 1. The following is the most important purpose of documentation?except
a) To Communication
b)To provide comfort
b) To Quality assurance
d) To Reimbursement

Answer: b)To provide comfort

Question No. 2. One milligram contains:
a. 10 microgram
b 100 microgram
c. 1000 microgram
d. 10000 microgram

Answer: c. 1000 microgram

Question No. 3. The nurse is to administer an iron injection to an adult. How should this be administered?
a) Z track intramuscular in the gluteal
b) Intradermal in the forearm
c) Intramuscular in the deltoid
d) Subcutaneous in the arm
Answer: a) Z track intramuscular in the gluteal 

Question No. 4.The nurse is orienting a new nurse to the unit and reviews source-oriented charting. Which statement by the nurse best describes source-oriented charting?
a) Separates the health record according to discipline
b) Organizes documentation around the patient's problems
c) Highlights the patient's concerns, problems, and strengths
d) Is designed to streamline documentation

Answer: a) Separates the health record according to discipline

Question No. 5. All the flowing are essential standard precautions used in the care of all
patients irrespective of whether they are diagnosed infectious or not ,except one
a) Hand hygiene
b) Improper sharps and waste disposal
c) Personal protective equipment
d) Aseptic techniques

Answer: b) Improper sharps and waste disposal

Question No. 6. Tall peaked T waves in ECG is seen in
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hypernatremia
d. Hyperkalemia


Question No. 7. Changes that occur in musculoskeletal system due to immobility
a) decrease muscle endurance ,strength and mass
b) Change in calcium metabolism with hyper calcium result in renal calculi
c) Alteration in calcium,fluid and electrolyte
d) Non of the above

Answer: a) decrease muscle endurance ,strength and mass

Question No. 8. Objective data might include:
a) Chest pain.
b)An evaluation of blood pressure. 
c)  Complaint of dizziness.
d) None of the above

Answer: b)An evaluation of blood pressure. 

Question No. 9According to Indian Public Health Standard, minimum number of beds in a Community Health Centre
 D:- 70
Answer:-  B:-30 

Question No. 10. Hypoxia is a manifestation of:
a. Lack of oxygen
b. Excess of carbon dioxide

c. Lack of carbon dioxide
d. Excess of oxygen


Question No.1. Independent nursing intervention commonly used for immobilized patients
include all of the following except:
a. Weight bearing on a tilt table, total parenteral nutrition, and vitamin therapy
b. Deep-breathing and coughing exercises with change of position every 2 hours
c. Diaphragmatic and abdominal breathing exercises and increased hydration
d. Active or passive ROM exercises, body repositioning, and activities of daily living (ADLs) as tolerated

Answer:a. Weight bearing on a tilt table, total parenteral nutrition, and vitamin therapy

Question No.2. Normal Saline contains:
a. 0.9%Sodium chloride
b. 0.5%Sodium chloride
c. 0.8% Sodium bicarbonate
d. 3% Sodium chloride


Question No.3. A patient asks you what vitamin is best for eye sight. Your response is:
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin B6

c)Vitamin A
d)Vitamin B12

Answer:c)Vitamin A

Question No.4. The nurse is working on a unit that uses nursing assessment flow sheets. Which statement best describes this form of charting?
a) Contain vital data collected upon admission, which can be compared with newly collected data
b) Contain only graphic information, such as I&O, vital signs, and medication administration
c) Are used to record routine aspects of care; they do not contain assessment data
d) Are comprehensive ch arting forms that integrate assessments and nursing actions

Answer: d) Are comprehensive ch arting forms that integrate assessments and nursing actions

Question No.5. All the following are Patient’s responsibilities, except
a) Give different kind of care
b) Complying with instructions
c) Providing information
d) Following hospital rules and regulations

Answer: a) Give different kind of care

Question No.6. Chest tube is most commonly put in _____________ intercostal space
a. 4th-5th
b. 6th-7th
c. 8th-9th

d. 10th-11th


Question No.7. All the following are indicative physical signs of poor nutrition are all, except
a) Dental caries, mottled appearance (fluorosis), malpositioned
b) Tongue - deep red in appearance; surface papillae present
c) Brittle, depigmented, easily plucked; thin and sparse hair
d) Spongy, bleed easily, marginal redness, recession gums

Answer: c) Brittle, depigmented, easily plucked; thin and sparse hair

Question No.8. Which of the following fluids can be safely given through peripheral vein.
a. Normal Saline/ Amino Acids/ Ringer Lactate
b. Normal Saline/ Amino Acids/ Intralipid
c. Normal Saline/ Intralipid/ Ringer Lactate
d. 5% Dextrose/Normal Saline/ Amino Acids


Question No.9.The nursing process is utilized to:
a) Encourage the family to make decisions regarding patient's care.
b) Provide a systemic, organized and comprehensive approach to meeting the needs of clients.
c) Increase involvement of allied healthcare professionals in decision-making
d) None of the above

Answer: Provide a systemic, organized and comprehensive approach to meeting the needs of clients.

Question No.10. Pressure in oxygen cylinder is:

a. 1200 psi
b. 1500 psi
c. 1800 psi
d. 2500 psi



Question No.1. Non verbal massage is a mode of communication that include the following except
a) Tone& pitch of voice 
b) Facial expression
c) Gesture
d) Touch
Question No.2. Four emergency interventions used in resuscitating a patient in cardiac arrest.
a. Adrenaline/Atropine/ Amiodarone/Defibrillation
b. Epinephrine/ Atropine/ Vasopressin/ Noradrenaline
c. Adrenaline/Vasopressin/ Amiodarone/Defibrillation
d. . Epinephrine/ Atropine/ Vasopressin/ Amiodarone

Question No.3.The nurse prepares IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue.
Which of the following is the best action in order to prevent tracking of the
a) Use a small gauge needle
b) Apply ice on the injection site
c) Administer at a 45° angle
d) Use the Z-track technique

Question No.4.5% Dextrose solution contains:
a. 5 gm dextrose/ liter
b. 50 gm dextrose/ 100 ml
c. 5 gm dextrose/ 100 ml
d. 5 mg dextrose/ 100 ml

Question No.5.Which of the following is the meaning of PRN?
a) When advice
b)When necessary
b) Immediately

Question No.6. Development of an infection occurs in a cycle that depends on the presence of all
the following elements except:
a) Causative agent, a portal of entry
b) Source for pathogen growth
c) Health care worker
d) A portal of exit, a mode of transmission, a susceptible host

Question No.7. Normal level of serum sodium is
a. 115-135
b. 135-145
c. 150-170
d. 170-190

Question No.8.According to Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs, the highest level is
a) Physiologic needs
b) Safety and security
c) Belongingness and affection and esteem and self-respect
d) Self-actualization

Question No.9.Which of the following drugs is not a muscle relaxant?
a. Suxamethonium
b. Pancuronium
c. Fentanyl
d. Gallamine

Question No.10.Mr. Shiju John has just been admitted to your floor with onset of disruptive behavior due to unknown cause. He is prescribed haloperidol 2.5 mg intramuscularly now. The pharmacy dispenses haloperidol for injection in the form of 5 mg/mL. How much medication do you draw up to give to Mr. Shiju John?
a) 2 mL.
b) 5 mL.
c) 0.5 mL. 


Question #1:-The type of stroke that can develop in a patient with chronic atrial fibrillation is
 A:-Embolic stroke
 B:-Thrombotic stroke
 C:-Haemorrhagic stroke
 D:-Mini stroke
 Correct Answer:-  A:-Embolic stroke

Question #2:-The drug that should only be administered in diluted form is
 A:-Sodium bicarbonate
 B:-Pottasium chloride
 C:-Sodium chloride
 D:-Calcium gluconate
 Correct Answer:-  B:-Pottasium chloride

Question #3:-Signs of meningeal irritation include all the following, EXCEPT
 A:-Kernig's sign
 B:-Brudzinski's sign
 C:-Kehr's sign
 D:-Neck stiffness
 Correct Answer:- C:-Kehr's sign

Question #4:-A liquid drop is spherical in shape due to
 D:-Surface Tension
 Correct Answer:-  D:-Surface Tension

Question  #5:-A client is given oxytocin for induction of labour. The side effect of oxytocin is

 B:-increased urine outflow


Question # 1. Which of the following represents a category of viruses?
A. File Infectors
B. Macro viruses
C. Boot record infectors
D. All of the above

Question #2. You must instruct the ____________________ to start the application software.
A. operating system
B. memory
C. utility program
D. processor

Question #3. Mc Afee is an example of common___________________ software.
A. coffee
B. antivirus
C. firewall
D. none of the above

Question #4. Input may be in the following forms:

Question #5. HTML stands for:
A. Hyper Text Make up Language
B. Higher Text Mark up Language


The Question Answers of Staff Nurse Recruitment (B.Sc Nursing) Exam conducted by KEA is published here.
1. Which of the following IV fluids is prescribed to increase intravascular volume, replace immediate
blood loss volume and increase blood pressure?
 (A) 5% dextrose in lactated Ringers Solution
2. Umbilical cord consists of
 (B) 2 arteries and 1 vein
3. Phases of counselling does not include
 (C) Imagination
4. When performing chest compressions on an adult in CPR, the sternum should be depressed for at least
 (C) 1½ to 2 inches
5. Peg cells are seen in
 (D) Fallopian tubes
6. Fear of crowded or closed in spaces
7. Soiled waste can be disposed by which method ?
 (A) Incineration
8. What is the normal score in Mini Mental status examination?
 (A) 25–30
9. The reason for urbanization is
 (D) Industrialization
10. Which is the most appropriate time of IUD insertion ?
 (A) During or within 10 days of menstruation


Question #1. Mr. Veldman is admitted with decreased level of consciousness. His admission labs are: Blood glucose 56 mmol/L, Na 149 K 4.8 Cl 105 HCO3 22, ABGs PaO2 72 PCO2 45 pH 7.39 HCO3 23.
Which one of the problems is indicated by these findings?
a. Diabetic ketoacidosis
b. Glucagon overdose
c. Non-ketotic hyperosmolar coma
d. Adrenal crisis

Question #2. Ms. Saundarya is admitted with coma. She has a BP of 158/75 HR 52 (sinus) and requires intubation for level of consciousness and pulmonary edema. Her temperature is 34 (oral). Which of the following lab tests is the priority?
a. TSH, T3, T4
b. Serum and urine osmolalities
c. Cosyntropinin stimulation test
d. Serum renin and angiotensin levels

Question #3. Mrs. Sunitha has been on steroids for the past 6 years to treat severe rheumatoid arthritis. Which one of the following problems would you anticipate?
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hyperlipidemia
d. Hypoglycemia

Question #4 . Which one of the following factors increases the risk for central line infection?
a. Subclavian venous access
b. Chorhexidine skin prep
c. Tunneled catheters
d. TPN

Question #5. Ms. Stelina, 80 kg, drops her platelet count by >50% 10 days after starting subcutaneous heparin. She develops a swollen right calf and positive Homan’s sign. Which one of the following interventions
would you anticipate?
a. Change anticoagulant to dalteparin 15,000 units SC daily
b. Administer protamine sulphate and discontinue heparin
c. Initiate anticoagulation with fondaparinux
d. Stop all anticoagulation and initiate pneumatic compression stockings

Question #6 . Ms. Geetba is recovery from a prolonged critical illness. She is having tracheostomy-mask trials each day. She is withdrawn and sad, and tells the nurse she no longer has any control of her life. Which
one of the following interventions would best meet her needs?
a. Initiate antidepressant therapy
b. Administer sedation at bedtime
c. Develop a collaborative plan of care
d. Refer Mrs. Tam to a psychiatrist

Question # 7. Mrs. Asha George is admitted with cardiogenic shock following a myocardial infarction. She has the following findings:
HR 68 BP 80/55 CVP 24 SpO2 88%
Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Levophed
b. Epinephrine
c. Lasix
d. Metoprolol

Question # 8. Identify the formula for minute volume.
a. Tidal volume X respiratory rate
b. Functional residual capacity – tidal volume
c. Forced vital capacity X respiratory rate
d. Cardiac Output X respiratory rate

Question # 9. When using a Passy-Muir Valve (PMV), which one of the following interventions is appropriate?
a. Ensure the cuff is always inflated
b. Monitor for adequacy of exhalation
c. Introduce the PMV as soon as the tracheostomy is performed
d. Suction prn by passing the catheter through the centre of the PMV

Question #10. Mrs. Prabhavathi has advanced cancer. She has been extubated for two days, with orders for no reintubation. She develops increasing dyspnea. Which one of the following agents would best manage these symptoms?
a. Propofol (Diprovan)
b. Fentanyl
c. Midazolam (Versed)
d. Gabapentin


Question # 1. The client with AIDS tells the nurse that he has been using acupuncture to help with his pain. The nurse should question the client regarding this treatment because acupuncture:

A. Uses pressure from the fingers and hands to stimulate the energy points in the body
B. Uses oils extracted from plants and herbs
C. Uses needles to stimulate certain points on the body to treat pain
D. Uses manipulation of the skeletal muscles to relieve stress and pain

Answer D is correct. Acupuncture uses needles, and because HIV is transmitted by blood and body fluids, the nurse should question this treatment. Answer A describes acupressure, and answers B and C describe massage therapy with the use of oils.

Question # 2. The 10-year-old is being treated for asthma. Before administering Theodur, the nurse should check the:
A. Urinary output
B. Blood pressure
C. Pulse
D. Temperature

Answer C is correct. Theodur is a bronchodilator, and a side effect of bronchodilators is tachycardia, so checking the pulse is important. Extreme tachycardia should be reported to the doctor. Answers A, B, and D are not necessary.

Question # 3. The nurse witnesses the nursing assistant hitting the client in the long-term care facility. The nursing assistant can be charged with:
A. Assault
B. Tort
C. Negligence
D. Malpractice

Answer A is correct. Assault is defined as striking or touching the client inappropriately, so a nurse assistant striking a client could be charged with assault. Answer A, negligence, is failing to perform care for the client. Answer B, a tort, is a wrongful act committed on the client or their belongings. Answer D, malpractice, is failure to perform an act that the nursing assistant knows should be done, or the act of doing something wrong that results in harm to the client.

Question # 4. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150ccs drainage
B. A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
C. A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102°F
D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck’s traction

Answer A is correct. The first client to be seen is the one who recently returned from surgery. The other clients in answers B, C, and D are more stable and can be seen later.

Question # 5. A client with glomerulonephritis is placed on a low-sodium diet. Which of the following snacks is suitable for the client with sodium restriction?
A. Peanut butter cookies
B. Fresh peach
C. Cottage cheese and fruit
D. Grilled cheese sandwich

Answer B is correct. The fresh peach is the lowest in sodium of these choices.
Answers A, C, and D have much higher amounts of sodium.

More Nursing Exam Questions with Answer


1. Ms. Deepa Joseph suddenly develops a decrease in her level of consciousness, even though she has not received any additional sedatives or analgesics. She is on broad spectrum antibiotics, levophed, vasopressin, steroids and intensive insulin. She is being fed via a nasal gastric feeding tube. She develops gastric distention with residual volumes equal to 6 hours feeding volume. Which one of the
following interventions is a priority?
a. Change feeding tube to small bowel placement
b. Obtain a blood glucose measurement
c. Initiate a prokinetic agent
d. Change feeds to elemental solution
2. Which one of the following pharmacological agents should be administered with levothyroxine for the treatment of myxedema coma?
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Epinephrine
d. Steroids

3. Manjusha is admitted following a motor vehicle collision. Her past medical history includes daily
prednisone for the treatment of systemic lupus. Despite fluid replacement therapy and initiation of
levophed, her blood pressure remains low. Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Cosyntropinin
b. Epinephrine
c. Hydrocortisone
d. Vasopressin

4. After successful completion of a spontaneous breathing trial, extubation is considered. Which one of
the following findings would be a contraindication to extubation?
a. FiO2 0.4
b. PEEP 5
c. GCS 4
d. Minute volume 10 L/min

5. Mr. Geetha Joh underwent coronary bypass surgery. Four hours following admission to the critical careunit, his BP begins to fall, his HR rises to 130 and his urine output decreases to 35 ml/hr. His CVP
increases to 22 and his PWP 18. The critical care nurse notifies the cardiovascular surgeon. Pending
the surgeons arrival, which intervention is the priority?
a. Milrinone
b. Dobutamine
c. Lasix
d. Fluid

6. Following an inferior wall infarction, Mrs. Shoba Banner develops a sinus rhythm with Wenkebach
phenomena. She develops episodes of symptomatic bradycardia. Which one of the following
interventions would be the priority?
a. Epinephrine
b. Cardioversion
c. Atropine
d. Dopamine

7. Mr. Lio George has been on home ventilation for several years with severe COPD. He was admitted for exacerbation of COPD due to pneumonia. At home, he varies his support between Pressure Control
ventilation and spontaneous breathing. His pneumonia has now resolved and the plan is to return
him to his baseline ventilation. He calls you to his bedside and asks you what his ventilator is set to
because he feels short of breath. You tell him he is on Pressure Support, and he becomes very
angry. He tells you that he told the respiratory therapist that he has tried Pressure Support in the past
and he does not like it. When you speak to the respiratory therapist, she had placed the patient on PS
to see if he noticed the difference. Which one of the following is an appropriate response?
a. Encourage Mr. Lio George to stay on the Pressure Support and give it a chance to work
b. Have the respiratory therapists speak to Mr. Lio George to explain her interventions
c. Facilitate a meeting between you, the respiratory therapist and Mr. Lio George to develop a plan for weaning
d. Tell Mr. Lio George that his lungs have changed and the previous mode might not work the same way

8. Mr. Anup Unnikrishnan is admitted with hypoxemic and hypercarbic respiratory arrest requiring intubation and ventilation. He has a RLL consolidation on xray, with copious purulent secretions. WBC is 24,000 T 39.4. BP 88/56 HR 136 and CVP 18 after 6 L of 0.9% normal saline. Urine output is 10 ml/hr. Which
one of the following interventions is a priority?
a. Levophed
b. Dopamine
c. Dobutamine
d. Labetolol

9. Mr. Padmanabha Ayyangar is admitted with alcoholic pancreatitis. He has a T 38.2 WBC 14,000 (with left shift and increased neutrophils). Following 4 litres of normal saline, his BP increases to 114/80 from 70/50, HR decreases from 144 to 92 and urine output increases from 10 to 60 ml/hr. He requires intubation for worsening hypoxemia. Which one of the following best explains these findings?
a. Sepsis
b. Severe sepsis
c. Septic shock
d. Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome

10. Mrs. Sanjana Gandhi is a Type II diabetic with a history of TIA and congestive heart failure. She is admitted to the critical care unit for monitoring following a Hartmann’s procedure for colon cancer. Two hours post operatively, she develops new onset uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with hypotension. Which one of the following interventions is the priority?
a. Lidocaine
b. Amiodarone
c. Coumadin
d. IV heparin